1 votes 1 votes Let $r$ be a real number and $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cl}2 x-r & \text { if } x \geq r \\ r & \text { if } x<r\end{array}\right.$. Then, the equation $f(x)=f(f(x))$ holds for all real values of $x$ where $x \leq r$ $x>r$ $x \geq r$ $x \neq r$ Quantitative Aptitude cat2022-set3 + – admin asked Mar 3, 2023 • edited Dec 30, 2023 by makhdoom ghaya admin 4.5k points 484 views answer comment Share See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Ans is A. KG answered Mar 7, 2023 KG 234 points comment Share See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.